I am a guy, and I have been married for 45 years. But one thing doesn’t change. Consent means agreement. Here, the woman had sex with the male many times, but only with a condom. A condom can prevent pregnancy and can prevent disease transmission. She had openly declared it a condition and never wavered. He never asked her to consent to change the relationship. He changed it on his own, without her agreement and without even notice. She never consented to that sex act.

Having intercourse without consent-actually, against her will-sounds like rape to me. At the very least, it would be an assault. If he broke his word on condom use, why believe he was faithful? If he cheated, might there really have been a risk of disease transmission? If he gave her a disease, it would clearly be recklessly endangering another person. I would strongly advise you to suggest she get tested for STDs.